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Old February 28th 04, 01:16 AM
Shystev99
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I think that's a ridiculous definition. For a set to be considered a
"Type II Set", *all* coins must be Type II. Similarly, a "Type I Set"
would have all Type I coins. Anything with mixed types would just be a
year set, with no regard to typeness.


I agree, It does sound pretty ridiculous to have mixed types of coins in one
set, then call it a full type set set.
By those standards I could gather up say 10 coins from any given year, 9 of
them being mint state uncirculated coins and 1 being a proof coin, And then
advertise it for sale as a
"Proof SET" because afterall, its got one proof coin in it.
If I were you I'd raise some hell with that seller, It's nothing less than
fraud in my opinion.
But incase I'm wrong, better wait to see what some others say on it.
Steve
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